![]() ![]() On 2), is the implicit idea that the phrase asserts consistent with Scripture? If we take the phrase in its plain-sense meaning, certainly not. With this dubious modern pedigree we must ask the obvious question: is this an idea that comes from above, or from below? (John 8:23) Just about then a few susceptible christian teachers stepped in and took the baton, and the rest is history. After the drugs wore off, psychology flirted with the pop-phrase in the 1970's in the "transactional analysis" fad, but this was ephemeral and quickly dropped from view. But "under the influence" a lot of things made sense that didn't later. But the phrase did not last long even among the hippies because it is inherently contradictory: to love is to care deeply about the condition of the one loved. What the flower-children originally meant by unconditional love had to do with "love the one you are with" in the sexual revolution sense. The phrase unconditional love entered mainstream, pop-culture English during the 1960s LSD drug culture. ![]() Readers have pointed out that it was first used in 1751 in negative reference to the Moravian heresy (hat tip: Devin R.), and more recently by Erich Fromm in the 1930s to describe the matricentric complex (vs. On 1), the words unconditional and love are not used in Scripture in either the Old or New Testaments, nor do any of the church fathers use the phrase. On this we should consider three things: 1) Where did this idea come from? 2) Is it consistent with Scripture? and 3) Could this be a modern packaging of the age old message of false prophecy? But is God's love without condition-I.E.: UN-conditional? Scripture clearly teaches that God's love ( phileo, agape, aheb, ahabah, etc.) is unfailing, undeserved, and unilateral (completely one-sided in initiation). ![]() A Critical Review of a Pop Religious Truism ![]()
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